Project

Which identifier authoritatively designates this project, which system issued it, which governed global identifiers also designate it, and how duplicate or superseding records are resolved.

Questions

1. Which system of record issues the authoritative identifier for this project, and what is that identifier?identity
   Expected answer

   • Master system name and instance
   • Authoritative identifier value
   • Identifier scheme and syntax rule
   • Issuing date-time of assignment
2. Which governed global identifiers, such as a RAiD, a funder award number or a published activity identifier, also designate this project?interoperability
   Expected answer

   • Identifier type
   • Identifier value
   • Issuing registry or registration agency
   • Resolution URL
3. What rule decides identity when two records appear to describe the same undertaking under different identifiers?validation
   Expected answer

   • Match criteria set
   • Precedence order between schemes
   • Merge, supersede or reject decision
   • Deciding role and decision time
4. Does the identifier survive renaming, re-scoping, transfer or merger, and what event forces a new identifier?lifecycle
   Expected answer

   • Stability policy statement
   • Re-issue trigger list
   • Superseded-by reference
   • Retained alias list

Artifacts

• Identifier registration recordThe record evidencing assignment of the authoritative identifier and any registered global identifiers, with issuing authority and assignment time.

How the project is typed against governed vocabularies: project type, delivery approach, sector or thematic codes, and the criterion separating it from operations or a process instance.

Questions

1. Which project type and domain classification apply, and under which controlled vocabulary and vocabulary version?classification
   Expected answer

   • Type code
   • Scheme URI
   • Scheme version
   • Assignment scope note
2. Is delivery predictive, incremental, iterative, adaptive or hybrid, and may that approach change during the life cycle?state
   Expected answer

   • Delivery approach code
   • Effective period of the approach
   • Change trigger and approver
   • Tailoring note
3. Which sector, thematic or funding-scheme codes are asserted for this project and who asserted each of them?provenance
   Expected answer

   • Code value and scheme
   • Asserting party
   • Assertion time
   • Assertion basis or evidence
4. What criterion establishes that this record is a transient endeavour rather than business-as-usual or a repeatable process instance?definition
   Expected answer

   • Finite timespan evidence
   • Uniqueness statement
   • Distinguishing test applied
   • Referenced process model, if any

Artifacts

• Classification binding tableTable binding the project to external code lists with scheme URI, scheme version, code, asserting party and assertion time.

What authorized the project to exist and spend, who signed it, what tolerances bound the project manager, and how authorization behaves on re-baseline, pause or transfer.

Questions

1. Which instrument authorized this project to start, and which role signed it?authority
   Expected answer

   • Instrument type and reference
   • Signing role and party
   • Authorization scope statement
   • Signature or approval evidence
2. What decision record evidences the authorization, when did it take effect, and where is that record held?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Decision record reference
   • Decision effective time
   • Record location or repository
   • Retention custodian
3. What tolerances or delegated limits on cost, time, scope and risk constrain the project manager before escalation is required?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Tolerance dimension
   • Threshold value and unit
   • Escalation target role
   • Tolerance review cadence
4. What happens to the authorization when the project is re-baselined, suspended or transferred to another owner?lifecycle
   Expected answer

   • Re-authorization trigger
   • Revision number of the instrument
   • Continuity or lapse rule
   • Effective and recorded times of the change

Artifacts

• Project charter or authorization decision recordThe signed instrument establishing the project, its mandate, sponsor and delegated limits, retained across revisions.

Who is accountable for the project, which body directs it, which decisions are reserved rather than delegated, and how a change of ownership is recorded.

Questions

1. Who is the accountable sponsor and which organization owns the project record?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Sponsor role holder reference
   • Owning organization reference
   • Accountability statement
   • Effective period of the accountability
2. Which decisions are reserved to the governing body rather than delegated to the project manager?authority
   Expected answer

   • Reserved decision list
   • Delegation boundary condition
   • Quorum or approval rule
   • Reference to the delegation schedule
3. How is independence of assurance and handling of conflicts of interest arranged in this governance structure?decision
   Expected answer

   • Assurance reporting line
   • Independence criterion
   • Conflict declaration record
   • Escalation route when independence fails
4. How is a change of sponsor, owning organization or governing body recorded, and from what time is it effective?event
   Expected answer

   • Transfer event record
   • Prior and new party references
   • Effective time and recorded time
   • Authorizing decision reference

Artifacts

• Governance terms of reference and delegation scheduleTerms of reference for the governing body together with the schedule of delegated and reserved decisions.

The justification that keeps the project authorized, who committed what funding under which award and conditions, and which benefits the project itself is accountable for.

Questions

1. What justification supports continued investment, and when was it last re-validated against actual performance?decision
   Expected answer

   • Business case reference
   • Last re-validation time
   • Re-validation outcome
   • Deciding body
2. Which funders committed what amounts under which award or agreement, and what conditions attach to each commitment?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Funder reference
   • Committed amount, currency and period
   • Award or agreement identifier
   • Condition text and compliance evidence
3. Which benefits is this project accountable for, and which are owned by a parent programme or by operations?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Benefit statement
   • Accountable party
   • Owning model reference
   • Realization horizon
4. What evidence must exist before the next funding tranche or stage authorization is released?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Required evidence item
   • Assessing role
   • Decision point reference
   • Consequence of non-satisfaction

Artifacts

• Business case and funding decision recordThe investment justification with its funding commitments, conditions and re-validation history.

ISO 21502 is guidance, not a certified management system, and is delivery-approach-neutral. PRINCE2 Version 7 requires the method to be tailored to the project's size, context and complexity. NASA requires a Compliance Matrix attached to the Formulation Agreement or Project Plan, allows tailoring with permission of the requirement owner, and records deviations and waivers. GovS 002 is mandated for UK departments and arm's length bodies but is designed to apply to all types of government projects. Alignment with a named method is evidence, not proof of conformance. Competing method stacks (PMI process groups, PRINCE2 processes, NASA phases A–F, ISO lifecycle practices) must be recorded as the adopted profile, not merged into a false universal process.

Questions

1. Which method profile is actually in force, and is any conformance claimed with evidence?classification
   Expected answer

   • adopted_method_profile (string[])
   • conformance_claim (none|aligned|evidenced-conformant)
   • evidence_refs (string[])
2. Who approved each tailoring or waiver, and what expiry or conditions apply?authority
   Expected answer

   • tailoring_decisions (object[])
   • waiver_set (object[])
   • approver_refs (string[])
3. Where is the live compliance matrix, and which requirements remain unmet?evidence
   Expected answer

   • compliance_matrix_ref (string)
   • unmet_requirements (string[])
   • last_verified_at (rfc3339)
4. How does the adopted profile map to partner methods when more than one organization is directing work?interoperability
   Expected answer

   • partner_method_maps (object[])
   • conflict_notes (text[])

Artifacts

• Compliance or tailoring matrixNASA-style Compliance Matrix or equivalent mapping of required practices to adopted, tailored or waived status.

The outputs, outcomes or benefits the project is accountable for, the measurable criteria that decide whether each is met, who judges satisfaction, and how conflicting objectives are prioritized.

Questions

1. What objectives is this project accountable for, expressed as outputs, outcomes or benefits?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Objective statement
   • Objective category
   • Accountable role
   • Linked scope element
2. What measurable criterion, indicator, baseline value and target decides whether each objective has been met?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Indicator name and definition
   • Measurement unit and method
   • Baseline value
   • Target value and target period
3. Who determines that a success criterion has been satisfied, and on what evidence?validation
   Expected answer

   • Deciding role
   • Evidence item reference
   • Decision time
   • Dispute or re-measurement route
4. How are objectives prioritized, and which one yields when two objectives cannot both be satisfied?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Priority rank or weighting
   • Trade-off rule
   • Authorizing role for trade-offs
   • Recorded trade-off decisions

Artifacts

• Objectives, indicators and results registerRegister of objectives with indicators, baselines, targets, actuals and the evidence supporting each measurement.

What is inside the authorized scope of work, what is explicitly excluded, which assumptions bound the statement, who may move the boundary, and how delivery of scope is confirmed.

Questions

1. What work is inside the authorized scope and what is explicitly excluded from it?definition
   Expected answer

   • Scope statement
   • Explicit exclusion list
   • Boundary interface note
   • Scope baseline version
2. Which role must approve a movement of the scope boundary, and above what threshold does approval escalate?authority
   Expected answer

   • Approving role
   • Escalation threshold
   • Change request reference
   • Approval decision time
3. How is delivery of the scope confirmed, and who accepts it on behalf of the sponsor?validation
   Expected answer

   • Confirmation method
   • Accepting role
   • Confirmation record reference
   • Outstanding exception list
4. Which assumptions and constraints does the stated scope depend on, and what happens if one proves false?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Assumption statement
   • Dependency on external party
   • Invalidation consequence
   • Linked risk entry

Artifacts

• Scope baseline statementThe approved scope statement with exclusions and assumptions, held as the scope component of the baseline set.

How the authorized scope is decomposed into mutually exclusive elements, how those elements are coded and kept stable, at which level performance is controlled, and how the structure relates to other breakdown structures.

Questions

1. Does the decomposition cover the entire authorized scope of work without overlap between elements, and how was that verified?composition
   Expected answer

   • Element list with parent references
   • Coverage verification method
   • Overlap exceptions found
   • Verifying role and time
2. What coding scheme identifies breakdown elements, and do element codes survive a re-baseline?identity
   Expected answer

   • Code syntax rule
   • Code stability policy
   • Retired or reused code register
   • Mapping to prior baseline codes
3. At which level of the breakdown is cost and schedule performance controlled and reported?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Control account level
   • Control account owner role
   • Budget assigned per control account
   • Measurement technique per account
4. How does this breakdown relate to other breakdown structures used by the organization, such as organizational, product, cost or risk breakdowns?interoperability
   Expected answer

   • Related structure name and owner
   • Mapping rule between structures
   • Level correspondence
   • Known mismatches

Artifacts

• Work breakdown structure and dictionaryThe decomposition of total scope with element codes, parent references and dictionary entries defining each element's content.

Which tasks, milestones and deliverables the project contains, by what link type, which external dependencies condition delivery, and what happens to those links when the project is cancelled, merged or split.

Questions

1. Which tasks, milestones and deliverables belong to this project, and under which typed edge is each held?composition
   Expected answer

   • Target record identifier
   • Link type code
   • Link direction
   • Link assertion time and asserting party
2. Which dependencies on other projects, suppliers or external events condition this project's delivery?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Dependency target reference
   • Dependency nature
   • Needed-by date
   • Owner of the dependency
3. How are cross-model links expressed so a consumer can resolve them without access to the project's storage system?interoperability
   Expected answer

   • Link serialization form
   • Target identifier scheme
   • Resolution endpoint
   • Fallback when the target is unresolvable
4. What happens to contained components and their links when the project is cancelled, merged or split?lifecycle
   Expected answer

   • Disposition rule per link type
   • Reassignment target
   • Orphan handling policy
   • Event record of the disposition

Artifacts

• Typed edge setThe set of typed edges binding the project to contained components, parent programme and external dependencies.

Which roles exist, who holds each and for what period, what decision rights attach to each role, and what competencies or clearances gate role holding.

Questions

1. Which roles exist in the project organization and who currently holds each one?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Role name and definition
   • Role holder reference
   • Appointment record
   • Deputy or alternate
2. What responsibility, accountability and decision rights attach to each role?authority
   Expected answer

   • Responsibility statement
   • Accountable versus consulted distinction
   • Decision rights list
   • Escalation target
3. Over what period is each role assignment valid, and what record evidences a handover?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Assignment start and end
   • Handover record reference
   • Effective and recorded times
   • Overlap or gap note
4. Which competencies, certifications or clearances must be held before a person may occupy a role?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Prerequisite type
   • Verification evidence
   • Verifying party
   • Expiry of the prerequisite

Artifacts

• Project organization and responsibility assignment recordRecord of the project organization structure with role definitions, holders, validity periods and decision rights.

Which resources are committed to the project in what quantity and period, who owns them, how contention is resolved, and what is recorded when an allocation changes mid-flight.

Questions

1. Which resources are committed to this project, in what quantity, and over which period?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Resource reference and type
   • Committed quantity and unit
   • Commitment period
   • Breakdown element consuming it
2. Who owns each committed resource and what instrument binds that commitment?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Resource owning party
   • Commitment instrument reference
   • Authorizing role
   • Commitment firmness level
3. How is over-allocation or contention with other projects detected, and who arbitrates it?exception
   Expected answer

   • Detection rule
   • Arbitrating body
   • Arbitration outcome record
   • Effect on the schedule baseline
4. What is recorded when resources are added, moved or withdrawn while work is in progress?event
   Expected answer

   • Change event type
   • Prior and new allocation values
   • Effective time and recorded time
   • Reason and authorizing role

Artifacts

• Resource commitment recordRecord binding resources to project work for a period, with owning party, authorizing role and change history.

The approved time-phased budget with currency and price base, the distinction between baseline, commitment, forecast and actual cost, the reserves and who may release them, and the economic assumptions embedded in the numbers.

Questions

1. What is the approved budget, in which currency and price base, and how is it phased across periods?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Budget amount per period
   • Currency code
   • Price base or reference year
   • Phasing method
2. What distinguishes cost baseline from commitment, forecast and actual cost in this record?definition
   Expected answer

   • Definition per cost value type
   • Source system per type
   • Cut-off rule for actuals
   • Reconciliation rule
3. Which contingency and management reserves exist, and which role may release each of them?authority
   Expected answer

   • Reserve type and amount
   • Holding level
   • Releasing role
   • Release decision record
4. Which exchange-rate, inflation and escalation assumptions underlie the cost figures?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Assumption type and value
   • Assumption source
   • Applicable period
   • Sensitivity or uncertainty range

Artifacts

• Time-phased cost baselineThe approved time-phased budget by control account with reserves, currency, price base and economic assumptions.

Which scope elements are delivered by external parties, under which agreement references, on what acceptance and payment conditions, and how supplier performance is evidenced without importing contract internals.

Questions

1. Which breakdown elements are delivered by external suppliers, and under which agreement reference is each held?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Breakdown element reference
   • Supplier party reference
   • Agreement identifier
   • Delivery model
2. What acceptance and payment conditions govern each supplier commitment?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Acceptance condition
   • Payment trigger
   • Accepting role
   • Withholding or retention rule
3. Which supplier obligations create dependency or risk for the project schedule, and how are they monitored?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Obligation and needed-by date
   • Linked risk entry
   • Monitoring cadence
   • Contingency if the obligation slips
4. How is supplier performance evidenced, and what route exists when performance is disputed?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Performance evidence type
   • Evidencing party
   • Dispute route
   • Escalation authority

Artifacts

• Supplier commitment registerRegister of agreement references, supplier parties, procured scope elements and acceptance conditions, holding references rather than contract text.

The project's current state within a declared vocabulary, who may trigger which transitions on what evidence, how suspension and cancellation differ from completion, and how effective time is separated from recorded time.

Questions

1. Which lifecycle state is the project in, and which governed vocabulary and version defines the permitted state set?state
   Expected answer

   • State code
   • Vocabulary URI and version
   • State definition text
   • Time the state became effective
2. Which state transitions are permitted, who may trigger each, and what evidence must accompany it?lifecycle
   Expected answer

   • Transition pair
   • Authorized triggering role
   • Required evidence
   • Rejected-transition handling
3. How are suspension, cancellation and premature closure distinguished from normal completion in the record?exception
   Expected answer

   • Termination state code
   • Reason code and narrative
   • Disposition of open commitments
   • Authorizing decision reference
4. What is recorded as the time a state change took effect versus the time it was entered into the system?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Effective time
   • Recorded or ingestion time
   • Recording actor and system
   • Latency or backdating note

Artifacts

• State transition logAppend-only log of state changes with effective time, recorded time, actor, reason and supporting evidence.

The life cycle model in use, entry and exit criteria per phase, which gates require a governing-body decision, what outcomes a gate may produce, and how tailoring changes the gate set.

Questions

1. Which life cycle model and phases apply, and what are the entry and exit criteria for each phase?process
   Expected answer

   • Phase name and sequence
   • Entry criteria
   • Exit criteria
   • Owning role per phase
2. Which decision gates require a governing-body decision before further work or spend is permitted?authority
   Expected answer

   • Gate identifier
   • Deciding body
   • Pre-conditions and required products
   • Consequence of proceeding without a decision
3. What outcomes may a gate decision take, and how is a conditional pass with actions recorded?decision
   Expected answer

   • Outcome code set
   • Condition or action list
   • Action owner and due date
   • Decision time and minute reference
4. How does a tailored, adaptive or hybrid delivery approach change the applicable gate set?classification
   Expected answer

   • Tailoring decision reference
   • Gates added, removed or merged
   • Approving authority for tailoring
   • Justification

Artifacts

• Gate decision recordFormal record of a phase gate or key decision point, with the products reviewed, the outcome and any conditions.

Type-coded planned and actual start and end dates, which of them is authoritative, how precision, offset and working calendar are expressed, the ordering rules that constrain them, and how re-baselined dates stay distinguishable from original ones.

Questions

1. What are the planned and actual start and end dates, and which source is authoritative for each?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Date type code
   • Date value and precision
   • Authoritative source system
   • Last update time
2. How are date precision, time offset and the applicable working calendar or fiscal year expressed?interoperability
   Expected answer

   • Precision indicator
   • Offset or Z designator
   • Working calendar reference
   • Fiscal year convention
3. Which validation rules prevent an actual date being recorded in the future or out of order relative to its planned counterpart?validation
   Expected answer

   • Ordering constraint set
   • Future-date rejection rule
   • Minimum required date types
   • Violation handling
4. How are re-baselined dates kept distinguishable from the dates in the original approved baseline?provenance
   Expected answer

   • Baseline version reference per date
   • Original baseline value
   • Change decision reference
   • Variance computed against which baseline

Which scope, schedule and cost baselines are currently approved, what authority established each, how superseded baselines are retained for reproducibility, and what forces a re-baseline rather than an in-baseline change.

Questions

1. Which scope, schedule and cost baselines are currently approved, and what version identifies each?identity
   Expected answer

   • Baseline type
   • Version identifier
   • Content hash
   • Coverage note
2. Which approval established the current baseline and from what instant does it apply?authority
   Expected answer

   • Approving body
   • Approval decision reference
   • Effective time
   • Scope of the approval
3. How are superseded baselines retained so that historic performance figures remain reproducible?provenance
   Expected answer

   • Superseded baseline reference
   • Retention location
   • Immutability mechanism
   • Link from performance data to baseline version
4. Which conditions require a full re-baseline rather than a change applied within the existing baseline?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Threshold or trigger condition
   • Deciding authority
   • Required analysis
   • Communication obligation

Artifacts

• Approved baseline packageImmutable snapshot bundling the approved scope, schedule and cost baselines with their approval evidence.

How change requests are raised, impact-assessed and decided, which thresholds escalate them, how a decided change links to the baseline version it altered, and how rejected requests are retained.

Questions

1. How is a change request raised, assessed for scope, schedule, cost and risk impact, and decided?process
   Expected answer

   • Request record fields
   • Impact assessment method
   • Deciding role or body
   • Decision outcome codes
2. Which thresholds move a change decision beyond the project manager's delegated authority?authority
   Expected answer

   • Threshold dimension and value
   • Escalation target
   • Approval evidence
   • Emergency deviation route
3. What links an approved change to the specific baseline version it altered?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Change request identifier
   • Prior and resulting baseline versions
   • Affected breakdown elements
   • Application time
4. How long are rejected and withdrawn change requests retained, and who may see them?retention
   Expected answer

   • Retention period
   • Disposition action
   • Access restriction
   • Retention authority reference

Artifacts

• Change request registerRegister of change requests with impact assessments, decisions, authorizing roles and the baseline versions affected.

How physical progress is measured per control account, which indices and variances are computed against which baseline, the data date of the performance figures, the checks that keep them internally consistent, and what is used when earned value does not apply.

Questions

1. How is physical progress measured for each control account, using which technique, unit and frequency?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Measurement technique code
   • Unit of measure
   • Measurement frequency
   • Responsible role
2. What is the data date of the performance figures, and how often are they refreshed?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Data date
   • Refresh cadence
   • Last computation time
   • Lag between data date and publication
3. Which checks confirm that reported earned value is consistent with actual cost, schedule status and the named baseline?validation
   Expected answer

   • Consistency rule set
   • Tolerance for discrepancy
   • Failed-check handling
   • Verifying role
4. When is earned value not an appropriate measure for this project, and what alternative measure is used instead?constraint
   Expected answer

   • Inapplicability condition
   • Alternative measure and method
   • Approval of the alternative
   • Comparability limitation

Artifacts

• Performance measurement datasetPeriodic dataset of progress, earned value and variance by control account, bound to a data date and a baseline version.

Who must receive which report at what cadence and detail, what forecast is asserted and on what basis, how report assertions trace to underlying performance data, and which external disclosure obligations apply.

Questions

1. Who must receive which report, at what cadence and at what level of detail?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Recipient role or body
   • Report type
   • Cadence and due offset
   • Detail or projection level
2. What forecast of final cost and completion date is asserted, and on what basis is it derived?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Forecast value and type
   • Derivation method
   • Assumptions and confidence range
   • Forecast as-of date
3. How is each reported assertion traced back to the underlying performance data and its data date?provenance
   Expected answer

   • Source dataset reference
   • Data date of the source
   • Transformation or aggregation applied
   • Preparing and approving roles
4. Which external transparency or funder-reporting obligations apply to this project's status, and what must be published?access
   Expected answer

   • Obligation source
   • Publication target and schema
   • Fields required to be public
   • Fields withheld and the ground for withholding

Artifacts

• Periodic status reportReport covering a defined period with progress against objectives, forecast, top risks and issues, and its traceability to the underlying data.

Which threats and opportunities are registered, how likelihood and impact are assessed and scaled, who owns each risk and its authorized response, what the risk endangers, and when a risk becomes an issue.

Questions

1. Which risks are registered, and on what scale are likelihood and impact assessed?measurement
   Expected answer

   • Risk statement
   • Likelihood scale and value
   • Impact scale, dimension and value
   • Assessment date and assessor
2. Who owns each risk and which response has been authorized for it?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Risk owner reference
   • Response type
   • Response actions and due dates
   • Authorizing role
3. Which objectives, milestones or deliverables does each risk threaten?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Threatened target reference
   • Nature of exposure
   • Exposure quantification
   • Linked contingency reserve
4. At what point does a registered risk become an issue, and what triggers escalation?exception
   Expected answer

   • Materialization criterion
   • Escalation trigger and target
   • Resulting issue reference
   • Notification obligation
5. How often is the register reviewed, and how is a stale or unreviewed entry detected?quality
   Expected answer

   • Review cadence
   • Last review time per entry
   • Staleness threshold
   • Remediation action

Artifacts

• Risk registerRegister of threats and opportunities with assessments, responses, owners, review history and links to threatened targets.

Which problems are open and since when, who is accountable, what escalation path and time limits apply, how an issue differs from a risk, change request or defect, and what evidence closes it.

Questions

1. Which issues are currently open, since when, and who is accountable for resolving each?state
   Expected answer

   • Issue statement
   • Open since time
   • Accountable role
   • Current status code
2. What escalation path and time limit apply to an issue that is not resolved at project level?process
   Expected answer

   • Escalation level sequence
   • Time limit per level
   • Receiving body
   • Notification record
3. How is an issue distinguished in this record from a risk, a change request and a product defect?definition
   Expected answer

   • Discriminating definition
   • Routing rule
   • Cross-reference to the related record
   • Reclassification history
4. What evidence is required to close an issue, and who verifies it?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Closure evidence type
   • Verifying role
   • Closure time
   • Residual risk raised on closure

Artifacts

• Issue and escalation logLog of raised issues with accountability, escalation history, resolution evidence and closure decisions.

What quality requirements apply to project outputs and to the management of the project, which independent reviews are mandated and by whom, how non-conformity is handled, and how assurance evidence is retained for audit.

Questions

1. Which quality requirements apply to the project's outputs and, separately, to the way the project is managed?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Requirement statement
   • Applicable standard or specification
   • Verification method
   • Responsible role
2. Which independent assurance or peer reviews are mandated, by which authority, and at what points?authority
   Expected answer

   • Review type
   • Mandating authority
   • Trigger point or cadence
   • Independence requirement
3. What process handles a detected non-conformity, and how is corrective action tracked to closure?process
   Expected answer

   • Non-conformity record fields
   • Corrective action and owner
   • Due date and closure criterion
   • Escalation on repeat failure
4. How is assurance evidence retained so that an auditor can reconstruct what was reviewed and concluded?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Evidence artifact reference
   • Retention period and authority
   • Immutability mechanism
   • Auditor access route

Artifacts

• Assurance or independent review reportReport of an independent review with scope, evidence examined, findings, conclusion and required actions.

Which parties are stakeholders and in what capacity, who owns each relationship, which attributes are personal data, how engagement is evidenced, and which locations or jurisdictions the project touches.

Questions

1. Which parties are stakeholders of this project, and in what capacity does each participate?relationship
   Expected answer

   • Party reference
   • Participation role code
   • Interest and influence assessment
   • Identification basis and date
2. Who owns the engagement relationship with each stakeholder group, and what commitments have been made to them?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Relationship owner role
   • Commitment made
   • Commitment due date
   • Escalation contact
3. Which stakeholder attributes constitute personal data, and how is their processing minimized and limited?privacy
   Expected answer

   • Personal data field list
   • Processing purpose
   • Minimization measure applied
   • Applicable jurisdiction and basis
4. How is engagement planned, carried out and evidenced over the life of the project?process
   Expected answer

   • Engagement activity type
   • Planned cadence
   • Evidence record reference
   • Feedback disposition
5. Which locations, jurisdictions or affected communities does the project operate in or affect?spatial
   Expected answer

   • Location name and geometry or coordinates
   • Jurisdiction code
   • Nature of the relationship to the location
   • Precision and source of the location data

Artifacts

• Stakeholder register and engagement planRegister of stakeholders with capacity, interest, relationship owner, engagement plan and evidence of engagement.

Who asserted each part of the project record, from which system and when, how derived values trace to their sources, and how integrity of retained artifacts is demonstrated.

Questions

1. Which agent and system asserted each element of the project record, and on whose behalf did they act?provenance
   Expected answer

   • Asserting agent reference
   • Acting-on-behalf-of relation
   • Source system identifier
   • Assertion time
2. For a derived or aggregated value, which source records was it generated from and by which activity?evidence
   Expected answer

   • Source record references
   • Generating activity or process
   • Derivation rule or method
   • Generation time
3. How is the integrity of a retained artifact demonstrated when it is later relied on as evidence?validation
   Expected answer

   • Hash algorithm and value
   • Sealing or signing mechanism
   • Verification procedure
   • Custody chain record
4. Where event time and ingestion time differ, how does the record keep both and signal which was used in a calculation?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Event time value
   • Ingestion or observation time value
   • Time basis used per computation
   • Backdating or correction flag

Artifacts

• Provenance recordStructured provenance for the project record: agents, activities, generation and derivation relations, and integrity digests.

How parts of the project record are classified for access, which parts are commercially or personally sensitive, how access is granted, time-bounded and revoked, and what is logged.

Questions

1. What access classification applies to each bundle, layer, finding and artifact of this project record?access
   Expected answer

   • Classification level
   • Scope of the classification
   • Classifying authority
   • Review or downgrade date
2. Which content is commercially sensitive or personally identifying and therefore restricted even inside the owning organization?security
   Expected answer

   • Sensitive element list
   • Sensitivity ground
   • Permitted role list
   • Redaction rule for wider release
3. How is an access grant requested, time-bounded, reviewed and revoked?lifecycle
   Expected answer

   • Granting role
   • Grant scope and expiry
   • Review cadence
   • Revocation trigger and record
4. Which parts must nevertheless be published because of a transparency or funder obligation, and which may be withheld?exception
   Expected answer

   • Mandated-public field list
   • Obligation source
   • Withholding ground
   • Approver of the withholding decision

Artifacts

• Access policy and grant registerRecord of classifications, grants, expiries, revocations and the authority behind each, together with the access log requirements.

What conditions permit closure, how the closure outcome is classified, what is handed over to operations or a parent programme, and how lessons are captured so they can be found by later projects.

Questions

1. What conditions must be satisfied before the project may be formally closed, and who confirms them?requirement
   Expected answer

   • Closure condition list
   • Confirming role
   • Outstanding exception disposition
   • Closure decision reference
2. How is the closure outcome classified, distinguishing completion from cancellation, merger and abandonment?classification
   Expected answer

   • Outcome code and vocabulary
   • Reason narrative
   • Residual obligations
   • Final state effective time
3. What is handed over at closure, to whom, and who becomes accountable for continuing benefits and support?ownership
   Expected answer

   • Handover item list
   • Receiving party
   • Acceptance evidence
   • Post-closure benefit owner
4. How are lessons captured, classified and made discoverable to later projects?quality
   Expected answer

   • Lesson statement and context
   • Classification tags
   • Publication target
   • Review or validation of the lesson

Artifacts

• Closure report and lessons recordFinal account of outcome against objectives, handover items and acceptance, residual obligations and captured lessons.

Which disposition authority governs the project record, how long each class of content is kept, how legal holds override disposition, and how deletion or redaction is executed and evidenced without destroying the audit trail.

Questions

1. Which disposition authority or retention schedule governs this project's records, and who issued it?retention
   Expected answer

   • Schedule or authority identifier
   • Issuing body
   • Applicable record classes
   • Deviation approval route
2. How long is each class of project content retained, and what event starts the retention clock?temporal
   Expected answer

   • Record class
   • Retention period
   • Trigger event starting the clock
   • Final disposition action
3. How does a legal hold or live audit obligation override the normal disposition of a project record?exception
   Expected answer

   • Hold instrument reference
   • Scope of the hold
   • Imposing authority
   • Release condition and record
4. How is deletion or redaction executed and evidenced so that the audit trail survives the removal?security
   Expected answer

   • Deletion or redaction method
   • Tombstone content
   • Authorizing role and legal basis
   • Verification of execution

Artifacts

• Retention schedule application and disposition recordRecord of the applied schedule, per-class retention periods, holds, executed dispositions and their tombstones.

PRINCE2 includes closing a project as a process. NASA includes decommissioning review to evaluate readiness for closeout, final delivery of remaining deliverables and safe disposal of assets, and requires archival of mission and science data. GovS 002 version 2.1 added clauses covering the transition, use and disposal of a solution, and added evaluation context. ISO/TC 258 has published ISO 21513:2026 guidance on post-project and post-programme evaluation; that text was not retrieved here and is an emerging alignment, not an implemented finding. Close may be completed, cancelled, merged or abandoned; warranty or liability tails may outlive operational close. Disposal and benefits handover can belong partly to operations or a programme; the project still records residual obligations.

Questions

1. How was this project closed or why is it not yet closeable, including cancelled, merged or abandoned dispositions?state
   Expected answer

   • close_disposition (string)
   • closed_at (rfc3339)
   • blocking_open_items (string[])
2. What was handed over to operations or another owner, and what disposal or decommissioning actions remain?process
   Expected answer

   • handover_records (object[])
   • disposal_actions (object[])
   • accepting_owner_ref (string)
3. Which warranty, archive, classified-material or liability obligations survive close, and until when?constraint
   Expected answer

   • residual_obligations (object[])
   • obligation_end_at (rfc3339)
   • owning_party_after_close (string)
4. Where is the post-project evaluation, which questions did it answer, and is ISO 21513 used only as alignment?evidence
   Expected answer

   • evaluation_ref (string)
   • evaluation_date (rfc3339)
   • standards_aligned (string[])
   • lessons_refs (string[])

Artifacts

• Closeout, handover and evaluation reportDisposition, accepted deliverables, residual obligations, disposal actions and post-project evaluation or lessons.